In the Old Testament God identified Himself as:

And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” -- Exodus 3:14 (NKJV)

And in the New Testament, Jesus made the claim:

Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM. (egō eimi)” -- John 8:58 (NKJV)

Thus, some argue this proof Jesus is God, because:

1. Jesus is identified with the same title as God.
2. Jesus already existed before Abraham was born.

If a person say "I am", it does not mean that person claim to be God. For example the man who had been born blind identified himself by saying exactly what Jesus said in John 8:58: “I am” (John 9:9).

Therefore the neighbors and those who previously had seen that he was blind said, “Is not this he who sat and begged?”
Some said, “This is he.”
Others said, “He is like him.”
He said, “I am he.” (egō eimi)
-- John 9:8-9 (NKJV)

However, note that the biased translators translated the same Greek words "egō eimi":

• in the case where Jesus' speak as "I am"
• in the case where the blind man speak as "I am he"

Paul also identified himself as "I am":

And Paul said, “I would to God that not only you, but also all who hear me today, might become both almost and altogether such as I am (egō eimi), except for these chains.” -- Acts 26:29 (NKJV)

Another examples of "egō eimi" where it does not identify Jesus:

And they were exceedingly sorrowful, and each of them began to say to him, “Lord, is it I (egō eimi)?” He answered and said, “He who dipped his hand with me in the dish will betray me. The Son of Man indeed goes just as it is written of him, but woe to that man by whom the Son of Man is betrayed! It would have been good for that man if he had not been born.” Then Judas, who was betraying Him, answered and said, “Rabbi, is it I (egō eimi)?”

-- Matthew 26:22-25 (NKJV)

However, some argue that "I AM" is the shortened version of God's title "I AM WHO I AM" and that Jesus was claiming God's title:

And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and He said, thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. -- Exodus 3:13 (KJV)

The problems with the reasoning is:

Firstly, that Jesus did not claim the full title. If Jesus was revealing himself as God, he would have made sure that the Jews don't misunderstand who he was.

Secondly, according to the Greek Septuagint, Jesus shortened the wrong part of the title:

And God said to Moses: “I AM (εγω ειμι) THE ONE WHO IS (ο ων).” … ‘You are to tell the children of Israel this: “THE ONE WHO IS (ο ων) has sent me to you.’” -- Exodus 3:14

It is likely that the author, John, would have quoted from the Greek Septuagint which was familiar in his days as he wrote his own book in Greek.

So, Jesus was more likely identifying himself as "I am he" or "I am the one" ... "that was previously identified." Who was previously identified?