The Word with God

It is commonly assumed by Trinitarians that "logos" translated as "the Word" could be synonymous to Jesus, for example Edward Klink III made the statement:

“Certainly the term [logos] might be recognizable [to John’s audience], but its direct connection to Jesus assumes that Jesus, not merely his [John’s] religious-philosophical context, determines its meaning. ... John is not relying on a background but on a foreground. For it is Jesus who embodies the “Word” (logos) in the flesh.”

However, "the Word" is a transliteration of the Greek word "logos" which has a very wide range of meanings that fall into two categories:

  1. the mind or products of the mind like "reason" or "logic" which comes from "logos"
  2. an expression of "reason" (logic), for example a "plan", "promise", "command" which is often also translated as account, appearance, book, conversation, eloquence, flattery, grievance, instruction, matter, message, ministry, news, proposal, question, reply, report, rule, rumor, saying, sentence, speech, story, teaching, testimony, truth, and so forth depending on the context.

There is no historical evidence that the people of Christ’s ever thought the "logos" was Jesus Christ. This is only an assumption.

The renowned Trinitarian scholar, J. B. Lightfoot, writes that it was Christian teachers who took the word logos and changed it, giving it new definitions, such as a divine Person, and that change occurred in the centuries after John lived.

For example John 1 is quoted as:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.

...

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.

-- John 1:1-2,14 (ESV)

With this biased translation it seems like John stated that Jesus is God.

"The Word" as Jesus

If "the Word" (logos) is Jesus, it would change the meaning of John's text to:

In the beginning was Jesus, and Jesus was with God, and Jesus was God. The same (Jesus) was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him (Jesus); and without Him (Jesus) was not any thing made that was made. In Him (Jesus) was life; and the life was the light of men. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light (Jesus), that all men through him might believe. He was not that Light (Jesus), but was sent to bear witness of that Light (Jesus). That was the true Light (Jesus), which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

He (Jesus) was in the world, and the world was made by Him (Jesus), and the world knew Him (Jesus) not. He (Jesus) came unto His (Jesus) own, and His (Jesus) own received Him (Jesus) not. But as many as received Him (Jesus), to them gave He (Jesus) power to become the sons of God (Jesus), even to them that believe on His name (Jesus): Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God (Jesus). And Jesus was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld His (Jesus) glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father) full of grace and truth.

John bare witness of Him (Jesus), and cried, saying,

This was He of Whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for He was before me.

And of His fulness (Jesus) have all we received, and grace for grace. For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

No man hath seen God (Jesus) at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, He (Jesus) hath declared Him (Jesus).

-- Twisted version of John 1

If one read John 1 this way, the passage is silly in many ways:


Jesus was with God (distinct), and Jesus was God (indistinct). The same (Jesus) was in the beginning with God (distinct).

Why does John contradict himself within the first sentence of the first verse?
Is Jesus distinct or indistinct from God?


He (John) was not that Light (Jesus), but was sent to bear witness of that Light (Jesus).

Why would John the apostle make such a silly statement if he already said "Jesus is God"?


He came unto His own, and His own received Him not.

And then only a few verses later...

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us.

  • Why did John the apostle repeat himself?
  • Is "He" and "His" of verse 11 really the same "the Word" of verse 14?

Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

  • Why would John the apostle make this silly statement? Obviously if God decided to reincarnate Himself to become a human, it would be His own will (unless there is an even bigger God?).

And Jesus was made flesh...

  • If Jesus was God's flesh, why did John use the verb "made"?
  • If Jesus was God's flesh, then it would have been more appropriate for John to write "Jesus appeared in the flesh" or "Jesus made His flesh" or "Jesus came to the flesh" or something of the like.
  • Did Someone other than Jesus "made" him?

We beheld his (Jesus) glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father

  • John mentions "the Father" for the first time. If Jesus is God, then who is "the Father"?
  • Nature showed as that a begotten son is not the same essence as his Father. Why would John make such a paradox statement without explaining what he meant if he was writing a testimony?

This was He of Whom I spake, He that cometh after me

  • This challenge the concept that Jesus previously appeared to people before his birth.

No man hath seen God (Jesus) at any time

  • This is not true, because John testifies what he saw Jesus did.

the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father

  • This statement rather support the idea that "the only begotton Son" is distinct from "the Father".

He (Jesus) hath declared Him (Jesus)

  • This is another silly statement. What is the point of someone declaring himself?

John 1

What was John trying to introduce?

  • Some argue that John gave a riddle. Guess what "the word" is? Then later he reveals the answer: "the word" is Jesus.
  • Other argue that the so-called "contradictions" in John 1 is caused by people who literally interpret the symbolic message of John.
  • Other argue that John opens his book by proofing or disproving the Godhead.

However, we found this comment about John appended to his Gospel:

This is the disciple (John) who is bearing witness about these things, and who has written these things, and we know that his testimony is true. -- John 21:24 (ESV)

A witness or testimony is not supposed to be overcomplicated, confusing, symbolic, prophetic or mysterious.

Instead...

these are written so that you may believe that

-- John 20:30 (ESV)

This is what we should expect John to introduce in his first chapter.

John 1:1

English Greek Lexicon Strong's Description
IN en Preposition In, on, among. A primary preposition denoting position, and instrumentality, i.e. A relation of rest; 'in, ' at, on, by, etc.
[the] BEGINNING archē Noun - Dative Feminine Singular From archomai; a commencement, or chief.
WAS ēn Verb - Imperfect Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular I am, exist. The first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist.
THE ho Article - Nominative Masculine Singular The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.
WORD logos Noun - Nominative Masculine Singular From lego; something said; by implication, a topic, also reasoning or motive; by extension, a computation; specially, the Divine Expression.
AND kai Conjunction And, even, also, namely.
THE ho Article - Nominative Masculine Singular The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.
WORD logos Noun - Nominative Masculine Singular From lego; something said; by implication, a topic, also reasoning or motive; by extension, a computation; specially, the Divine Expression.
WAS ēn Verb - Imperfect Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular I am, exist. The first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist.
WITH pros Preposition Advantageous for, at (denotes local proximity), toward (denotes motion toward a place)
GOD theon Noun - Accusative Masculine Singular A deity, especially the supreme Divinity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very.
AND kai Conjunction And, even, also, namely.
THE ho Article - Nominative Masculine Singular The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.
WORD logos Noun - Nominative Masculine Singular From lego; something said; by implication, a topic, also reasoning or motive; by extension, a computation; specially, the Divine Expression.
WAS ēn Verb - Imperfect Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular I am, exist. The first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist.
GOD theos Noun - Nominative Masculine Singular A deity, especially the supreme Divinity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very.

Facts:

  • logos has many possible meanings - commonly it is translated as "Word"
  • John refers 3 times to "THE WORD" (HO LOGOS) in the same sentence which means he was addressing a specific "Word", not just any "word"
  • John refers 2 times to God in the same sentence:
    • "WITH GOD" (PROS THEON) with a preposition and accusative masculine singular noun
    • "GOD" (THEOS) without a preposition and only a nominative masculine singular noun

The Jehovah Witnesses argue that because the last "GOD" (THEOS) not have a preposition, which means it should be translated as "a god". This would change the text to:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and the Word was a god.

This changes the text to read that there are 2 different "gods". However, some argue the lacking preposition makes no difference and could still refer to "the God".

The paradox

Why did John wrote "the Word was with God" and "the Word was God"?

From quoting John 1:1 alone, it is not clear if John referred to 1 or 2 different gods. Because of this confusion, some reason "John is a paradoxical guy and is unable to be consistent":

The issue of the paradoxical relationship of the Son (or "Word") to the Father is faced immediately.... Here is the seeming contradiction of the Word being God and yet not being God. -- Millard J. Erickson (God in Three Persons, p 199)

In other words, "X was with Y" implies X is not Y, but "X was Y" implies X is Y. This seems like a contradiction.

If interpret that the author is contradicting himself in the opening sentence, you probably made a big mistake. The author is probably not stupid. The author should be able to remain consistent in the space of at least one sentence... There was not this tradition of celebrating confusion as mysteries. -- Dr. Dale Tuggy

The Greek word transliterated as "theos" means "God", but unlike the English word "God", "theos" could also mean a number of different things.

Therefore, Murry J. Harris suggested:

Whenever [theos or ho theos are] found in the New Testament, we are to assume that ho pater [the Father] is the referent unless the context makes this sense impossible. -- Murry J. Harris (Jesus as God, p 271)

Which statement is less contradicting?

  • In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the Father, and the Word was the Father.

  • In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the Father, and the Word was divine.

How could "the Word" be divine?

Jehovah's witnesses would point it means that Jesus was a divine angel of the God, but even this is only an unproven assumption and clash with the meaning of "the word".

To the Jewish audience, "the Word" would mean God's command:

By the word of the LORD the heavens were made, and all the host of them by the breath of His mouth... For He spoke, and it was done; He commanded, and it stood fast. -- Psalm 33:6,9 (NKJV)

Some suggest that John choose to use the Greek word "logos" for the sake of his Greek philosophical audience, which means in this context would mean "wisdom about our existence and purpose" which is essentially what the Gospel intended to address and the purpose of his book (John 20:30). If this was John's motivation, it could mean that he means that he witness about the "divine" philosophy (wisdom) which explain our purpose and how we were created. If this is the case we could also translate "the Word" as God's "plan" which is perhaps easier for the modern reader to understand.

The Greek word "pros" which was translated as "with" actually means "advantageous for".

This changes the text to:

In the beginning was the plan, and the plan was advantageous for God, and the plan was divine.

John 1:2

Verse 2 is usually translated:

He was in the beginning with God. -- John 1:2 (ESV)

The word Greek word "houtos" which is translated as "he" could also mean "it" depending on the context. Since most English bible translators assume "the Word" is Jesus' other name, they translate it with "he" is a person, they say it proof that "the word" is Jesus. This is called circular reasoning.

Not all translators agree that "He" is the correct translation, for example:

The same was in the beginning with God. -- John 1:2 (ASV, KJV)

or

The Word was with God in the beginning. -- John 1:2 (NET)

or

This word was in the beginning with God. -- John 1:2 (REV)

or

Hierdie het aanvanklik saam met God bestaan. -- John 1:2 (PWL)

John 1:3

Many modern English translation would read something like:

All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. -- John 1:3 (ESV)

When something is made "through" someone, it means that person is only the channel and another person was the creator. This contradicts with other scriptures that state that God is the only Creator.

Other translations may read:

All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made. -- John 1:3 (KJV)

or

Everything came to be through it, and apart from it nothing came to be. -- John 1:3 (REV)

In Genesis 1 we read that God spoke the creation into existence. So if God creates by speaking or commanding, then it makes sense if "the Word" is God's command:

By the word of the LORD the heavens were made, and all the host of them by the breath of His mouth.
He gathers the waters of the sea together as a heap;
He lays up the deep in storehouses.
Let all the earth fear the Lord;
Let all the inhabitants of the world stand in awe of Him.
For He spoke, and it was done; He commanded, and it stood fast.

-- Psalm 33:6-9 (NKJV)

Obviously, the Psalmists did not have Greek philosophies in mind when they wrote this, but it shows that whatever God creates by commands, happen.

Let them praise the name of the LORD, for He commanded and they were created. -- Psalm 148:5 (NRSV)

In Genesis 1 we read that God created everything by saying: "Let there be..." and then it was created.

John 1:2-5

The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made. In Him was life; and the life was the light of men. And the Light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. -- John 1:2-5 (KJV)

This aligns with:

In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. The earth was without form, and void; and darkness was on the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God was hovering over the face of the waters. Then God said, “Let there be light”; and there was light. And God saw the light, that it was good; and God divided the light from the darkness. -- Genesis 1:1-3 (NRSV)

The light

In the context of John 1:5, "the Light" most likely a reference to God Himself (Isaiah 60:1-5,19-20; John 3:19-21; 1 John 1:5) which drove out the "darkness" (the devil), because at this point Jesus or the Gospel of salvation was not mentioned yet.

However, Jesus did say:

Again Jesus spoke to them, saying, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will not walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.” -- John 8:12 (ESV)

Therefore, some conclude that Jesus is the same "light" that John mentions in John 1. This would mean Jesus already pre-existed at the time of the creation. But if we consider that light could also refer to any teacher that reveals the truth to other in the "darkness" (John 8:12-18; 9:5; 12:35-36,46; Romans 2:19-21), it serves as no proof that Jesus is God.

The life

Some would quote Jesus:

Jesus said to them, "I am the bread of life; whoever comes to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst." -- John 6:35 (ESV)

and

Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. Whoever believes in me, though he die, yet shall he live, and everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die. Do you believe this?” -- John 11:25-26 (ESV)

and

Jesus said to him, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. -- John 14:6 (ESV)

and John testifies:

In Him was life; and the life was the light of men. -- John 1:4 (KJV)

Then they would argue that this proof that Jesus is the "light", the "life", the "word" and as well as "God", because that is the only way anyone could solely have all these attributes. However, while it is true that Jesus called himself "the light" or "the life", nobody said that these attributes where Jesus unique identity. It is only an assumption. As mentioned before, anyone who teaches the truth is considered "light". Both the Father and the Son is considered "the life" because they will judge who will receive the eternal life.

John, as the author of the same book, recorded these words from Jesus himself, which states that the Father is actually the source of life.

For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives life to whom he will. For the Father judges no one, but has given all judgment to the Son, that all may honor the Son, just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him. Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes Him (the Father) who sent me (the Son) has eternal life.

He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.

Truly, truly, I say to you, an hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live. For as the Father has life in himself, so He has granted the Son also to have life in himself.

-- John 5:21-26 (ESV)

"The Son" grants access to the "eternal life" of "the Father", but he only gives it to those who believes and "hear" (obey) "the voice" ("the word") of the Son of God will "live".

And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so must the Son of Man be lifted up, that whoever believes in him may have eternal life. “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. -- John 3:15-16 (ESV)

Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life; whoever does not obey the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God remains on him. -- John 3:36 (ESV)

Jesus said to her, “Everyone who drinks of this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks of the water that I will give him will never be thirsty again. The water that I will give him will become min him a spring of water welling up to eternal life.” -- John 4:13-14 (ESV)

The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy. I came that they may have life and have it abundantly. -- John 10:10 (ESV)

Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life. -- 1 John 5:12 (ESV)

John 1:6-9

There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. This man came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all through him might believe. He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. That was the true Light which gives light to every man coming into the world. -- John 1:6-9 (NKJV)

Some argue John witnessed about Jesus, which implies Jesus is "the Light".

As they went away, Jesus began to speak to the crowds concerning John:

“What did you go out into the wilderness to see?
A reed shaken by the wind?
What then did you go out to see?
A man dressed in soft clothing?

Behold, those who wear soft clothing are in kings' houses.

What then did you go out to see?
A prophet?

Yes, I tell you, and more than a prophet. This is he of whom it is written,

‘Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way before you.’

Truly, I say to you, among those born of women there has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist. -- Matthew 11:7-11 (ESV); Mark 1:2; Luke 7:27

Jesus quoted:

Behold, I send My messenger, and he will prepare the way before Me.

And the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple; and the messenger of the covenant in whom you delight, behold, he is coming, says the LORD of hosts.

But who can endure the day of his coming, and who can stand when he appears?

For he is like a refiner's fire and like fullers' soap. He will sit as a refiner and purifier of silver, and he will purify the sons of Levi and refine them like gold and silver, and they will bring offerings in righteousness to the LORD. Then the offering of Judah and Jerusalem will be pleasing to the LORD as in the days of old and as in former years.

-- Malachi 3:1-4 (ESV)

Note that in Malachi 1-2 as well as Malachi 3:1 it is "the LORD of hosts" that is speaking. So to "prepare the way before Me", means to "prepare the way before the LORD (YHVH)", not Jesus.

In those days John the Baptist came preaching in the wilderness of Judea, and saying, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand!” -- Matthew 3:1-2 (NKJV)

Although John the Baptist did also witnessed about Jesus (John 1:15), his main agenda was not to prepare a Jesus-fan club for his "first coming". Instead, John the Baptist, calling was to be God's messenger (or missionary) to start a movement to prepare (or save) people for God's kingdom of which Jesus also played a vital role.

In this context "light" could either:

  • refer to God himself, which mean John witnessed about God; or
  • refer to

John 1:10-11 - Creation by "the Light"

He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. -- John 1:10-11 (NKJV)

Compared with verse 3 which highlights that God is the only creator and that He alone created everything, we can conclude that "He" of verse 10 cannot be someone else. The purpose of verse 10 is to highlight that although God is the creator, He was rejected by His own, which aligns with Paul's writing:

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places, even as **He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world,

  • that we should be holy and blameless before Him.
  • In love He predestined us for adoption to Himself as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of His will,
  • to the praise of His glorious grace, with which He has blessed us in the Beloved.

-- Ephesians 1:3-6 (ESV)

In other words, God created people holy and blameless so that we can be his children so that he can bless us and we can praise Him. Sadly, His own people choose to reject Him.

This "He" most likely also refers to "the true light" of the previous verse.

However, some argue that this "He" is Jesus because

  • Jesus claimed to be the light (John 8:12)
  • Jesus was in the world (John 9:5; 12:46)
  • The world did not know Jesus
  • Jesus is the Lord, which means the people are his own
  • Jesus got rejected

Therefore, they assume "the world was made through Jesus" based on this verse. However,

And as seen above, we know God is the Creator.

John said himself:

This is the message which we have heard from Him and declare to you, that God is light and in Him is no darkness at all. -- 1 John 1:5 (NKJV)

Therefore, John 1:10 does not proof that Jesus is the Creator, however many will point out that the next verse could refer to Jesus:

John 1:12-13 - Receiving "the Light"

But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God to those

  • who believe in His name
  • who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

-- John 1:12-13 (ESV)

This could refer to Jesus because:

  • we need to belief in the name of Jesus, and
  • we know Jesus was born as a human

If this verse refers to Jesus, then the previous verse should also refer to Jesus which would make him the Creator.

However, John was not describing Jesus. He was pointing out who has "the right to become children of God".

John could also have meant those who believe in God's name as written by Isaiah:

“My people will know My name; therefore in that day they will know that it is I who foretold it.” -- Isaiah 52:6

And God's children must be reborn of God's Spirit.

John 1:14 - The Word became flesh

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. -- John 1:14 (NKJV)

Some argue this means Jesus was reincarnated from God to human.

Another possible explanation is that God's Word or "command" (as seen above) materialized when Jesus was born. In other words, John said that God kept His promise and that He spoke the truth.

John 1:15 - John bore witness of Jesus

John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.’” -- John 1:15 (NKJV)

John also bore witness of Jesus:

The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world! This is he of whom I said, ‘After me comes a man who is preferred before me, for he was before me.’ I did not know him; but that he should be revealed to Israel, therefore I came baptizing with water.” -- John 1:29-31

When John says "He was before me" even when Jesus was younger does not necessary mean Jesus pre-existed before John.

The Greek word "protos" translated as "before" can also mean "first", "chief", "leader", etc. For example Matthew 20:27, 22:38; Mark 6:21, 10:44; Luke 11:26.

John 1:16-17 - Fulfillment by Jesus

And of his fullness (fulfillment) we have all received, and grace for grace. For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. -- John 1:16-17 (NKJV)

The Greek word "pléróma" is often translated as "fullness" or "abundance" but according to Strong's Concordance it more likely means "fulfillment" of God's word or prophecies.

John 1:18a - Invisible God

No one has seen God at any time. -- John 1:18a (NKJV); Exodus 33:20

If Jesus is God, then John contradicts himself again:

We have seen His glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father... -- John 1:14 (ESV)

John 1:18b - Jesus made God known

Translators disagree on the correct translation of this verse:

The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he (Jesus) has declared Him (God the Father). -- John 1:18b (NKJV)

or

The only God, who is at the Father’s side, he (Jesus) has made Him (God the Father) known. -- John 1:18b (ESV)

Alternative translation of John 1

Those who belief:

  • "the Word" is "the promised plan (of salvation)",
  • "God" is "God the Father",
  • "the Light" is "the truth of salvation":

In the beginning was the promised plan, and the promised plan was from God the Father, and the promise was (about) God the Father. This was in the beginning with God the Father.

All things were made through God the Father, and without God the Father nothing was made that was made. In God the Father was life, and the life (salvation) was the testimony of salvation of men. And the testimony of salvation shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it (because its true).

There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. This man came for a witness, to bear witness of the testimony of salvation, that all through him might believe. He was not that Saviour, but was sent to bear witness of that Saviour. That was the true testimony of salvation which gives salvation to every man coming into the world.

God the Father was in the world (e.g. Genesis 1-3), and the world was made through God the Father, and the world did not know God the Father. God the Father came to His own (e.g. Israel), and His own did not receive Him.

But as many as received God the Father, to them God the Father gave the right to become children of God the Father to those who believe in His name, who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of the Spirit of God.

And the promise of God became flesh (fulfilled) and dwelt among us, and we beheld Jesus' glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

John bore witness of Jesus (too) and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.’”

And of the promise of God's fulfillment we have all received, and grace for grace. For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

No one has seen God the Father at any time (except) the only begotten Son (Jesus), who is in the bosom of God the Father, he (Jesus) has declared Him (God the Father).

Revelations 19

John wrote in the book of Revelations:

Then I saw heaven opened, and behold, a white horse! The one sitting on it is called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he judges and makes war. His eyes are like a flame of fire, and on his head are many diadems, and he has a name written that no one knows but himself. He is clothed in a robe dipped in blood, and the name by which he is called is The Word of God. And the armies of heaven, arrayed in fine linen, white and pure, were following him on white horses. From his mouth comes a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations, and he will rule them with a rod of iron. He will tread the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God the Almighty. On his robe and on his thigh he has a name written, King of kings and Lord of lords. -- Revelation 19:11-16 (ESV)

Many scholars agree that Jesus is most likely described here based on similar prophecies about Jesus. Therefore, some would argue that "the name" in this context means "identity" and that John identified Jesus as "the Word of God".

However, there are no evidence that "John of Patmos" is the same John, known as "John the apostle". Also, the book of John is a testimony, while Revelations is a prophecy. The context and use of language differ.

In the context of John 19, "the name" is more likely a reference to his authority as Revelation 19:16 reveals his authority, which is "King of kings and Lord or lords". That is not the same as a human designation like the name "John" or the name "Jesus". It means he has authority over kings and lords (masters).

John also wrote "a name written that no one knows but himself".

If John intende name as a designation, then what would that be if his designation "no one knows but himself"?
If also causes John to contradict himself, when he states "no one knows" his name, then he reveals it as "the Word of God".

John more likely intended to say that Jesus received so much authority from God, that no one fully understand how powerful he is.

So if the first and third instance of the word "name" means authority, then it only makes sense that the second instance of the word "name" in the middle of the passage would also mean "authority". This changes the meaning to:

He is clothed in a robe dipped in blood, and the authority by which he is called is The Word of God.

It is like the government sending a police officer to arrest a criminal on their behalf. Without an order, the officer has no right to arrest anyone. In this case it is Jesus acting by the Word of God to lead God's armies to strike down the nations.

It would be silly of John to say God comes by his own authority. Is there a bigger God than God? He is coming in the authority of God, or more specifically, by "the Word of God" which is God's "command" or by His instructions as we had see earlier. This scripture more likely means that Jesus was clothed in a special garment and is acting on the word (command) of God, therefore God's armies are following him.

This is significant, because it means we do not have to fear a coming trigger-happy bloodthirsty loose cannon. Instead, Jesus will return as an agent of God who obediently act according to the instructions of a fair God.