“You are My witnesses,” says the LORD,
“And My servant whom I have chosen, that you may know and believe Me, and understand that I am He.
Before Me there was no God formed, nor shall there be after Me.

-- Isaiah 43:10 (NKJV)

and

For I am the LORD, I do not change. -- Malachi 3:6 (NKJV)

However, some belief that John stated that Jesus as the Word of God "became flesh to dwell among us".

Was Jesus in the garden of Eden?

And they heard the sound of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God among the trees of the garden. -- Genesis 3:8 (NKJV)

Danie Haasbroek, the author of "The Wonder of Jesus in the Old Testament", claim that this was Jesus who "walked" with Adam and Eve.

• Jesus' name is never mentioned in the entire book of Genesis. It specifically said "LORD God" which was translated from the Hebrew name, יְהוָֽה which is never identified as Jesus.
• There are no verse in the entire bible that stated the Adam walked with the "LORD God" as one would walk next to a buddy through a garden. This is an assumption many Christians made which is based on no scripture.
• The verse state that "they heard the sound of the LORD God walking". They never saw Him walking, nor walked with Him. Adam told God “I heard Your voice in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked" (Genesis 3:10 NKJV). Adam did not see Jesus, he heard the LORD God.
• How did it sound? Like the "wind". Many translators would use the words "in the cool of the day", which is actually "in the breeze of the day". The word used there is רוּחַ ("ruach") which means "breath", "wind" or "spirit". This could imply that they experienced God's Spirit or presence.
• How did God "walked"? The word translated as "walking" is actually הָלַךְ ("halak") which could mean "walk", but it also means "to go" or "to come". They did not necessary heard God's footsteps as a person or animal walking, but they heard God or His Spirit coming as the wind. Another example is "Enoch walked with God; and he was not, for God took him." (Genesis 5:24) which means "Enoch had gone with God, and he was not, for God took him", same word translated as "walk" instead of "gone".
• God is invisible (John 1:18; 1 Timothy 6:16; Exodus 33:20; Deuteronomy 4:12) and certainly did not walk as a human (1 Kings 8:27) in the garden of Eden.

Jesus existed before Abraham

Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.” -- John 8:58 (NKJV)

Out of context it seems like Jesus claim to exist before Abraham was born, but a few verses before Jesus explain:

Jesus answered, “If I honor myself, my honor is nothing. It is my Father who honors me, of whom you say that He is your God. Yet you have not known Him, but I know Him. And if I say, ‘I do not know Him,’ I shall be a liar like you; but I do know Him and keep His word. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day, and he saw it and was glad.” -- John 8:54-56 (NKJV)

In other words, Abraham saw (a vision) of the future ("my day") that contained Jesus. The author of Hebrews also claim that Abraham saw visions of the future:

By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to the place which he would receive as an inheritance. And he went out, not knowing where he was going. By faith he dwelt in the land of promise as in a foreign country, dwelling in tents with Isaac and Jacob, the heirs with him of the same promise; for he waited for the city which has foundations, whose builder and maker is God. -- Hebrews 11:8-10 (NKJV)

In "prophetic language", prophets sometimes refer to the future as the past or would say that someone existed or did something before it happened in our timeline. This is because prophecies originate from God who is outside our timeline.

Therefore, an alternative interpretation is that before Abraham was born, there was already a prophecy that Jesus would be born and Abraham saw that vision. Like many other prophecies that declare a future event as the past, Jesus quoted a prophecy written in past tense which was about a future event that was being fulfilled by him in their presence.

Jesus was glorified before the world was created

And now, O Father, glorify me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was. -- John 17:5 (NKJV)

Jeremiah says something similar:

“Before I formed you in the womb I knew you; Before you were born I sanctified you; I ordained you a prophet to the nations.” -- Jeremiah 1:5 (NKJV)

So according to God Himself, a person already exists even when he is only part of God's plan and not physically created yet according to our timeline. This is possibly because God is not limited by our time. That means God can already "sanctify", "glorify", "give grace" and "choose" a person that was not created yet, but only part of God's plan.

Therefore do not be ashamed of the testimony of our Lord, nor of me His prisoner, but share with me in the sufferings for the gospel according to the power of God, who has saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was given to us in Christ Jesus before time began, but has now been revealed by the appearing of our Savior Jesus Christ, who has abolished death and brought life and immortality to light through the gospel, to which I was appointed a preacher, an apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles. -- 2 Timothy 1:8-11 (NKJV)

and

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He made us accepted in the Beloved. -- Ephesians 1:3-6 (NKJV)

Therefore, John likely meant that Jesus was on God's mind and part of His plan before He created anything. This is also in alignment with the opening of the same book in John 1:1.

Psalm 2

I will tell of the decree:

the LORD said to me, “You are my Son; today I have begotten you. Ask of me, and I will make the nations your heritage, and the ends of the earth your possession. You shall break them with a rod of iron and dash them in pieces like a potter's vessel.”

Now therefore, O kings, be wise; be warned, O rulers of the earth.

Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling.
Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and you perish in the way, for his wrath is quickly kindled.

-- Psalm 2:7-12 (ESV)

Some people argue that because the Son was "begotten" with past tense, it means that Jesus was already begotten at the time the Psalm was written. However, the Psalmist wrote "today", which an English person would understand means at the day that the Psalm was written, Jesus was supposed to be born, but the Psalm was written about a thousand years before Jesus was born.

The Hebrew word "yom" which was translated as "today" does not necessary mean "today", it could also mean: a specific future day, later, some time, when, whenever, and so forth according to NAS Exhaustive Concordance.

This is also how Paul understood the prophecy:

So Paul stood up, and motioning with his hand said: ...

We bring you the good news that what God promised to the fathers, this He has fulfilled to us their children by raising Jesus, as also it is written in the second Psalm,

"You are my Son, today I have begotten you."

-- Acts 13:16, 32-33 (ESV)

Another prophecy that was also written in past tense, but refers to a future is:

Surely he has borne our griefs and carried our sorrows; yet we esteemed him stricken, smitten by God, and afflicted. But he was pierced for our transgressions; he was crushed for our iniquities; upon him was the chastisement that brought us peace, and with his wounds we are healed. -- Isaiah 53:3 (ESV)

Obviously Jesus had not yet been crucified at the time Isaiah wrote this.

Therefore, even if the Hebrew word "yom" was intended to mean "today", it is still not unusual for a prophet to refer to a future event in the past tense as if it already happened, for example: Daniel 2:34-35; Revelation 20:11-15

Many people also confuse "the LORD" with "the Son". In Psalm 2 they are 2 different lords.

Jesus is God's glory

Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs. -- Hebrews 1:1-4 (ESV)

and

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. -- John 1:14 (ESV)

Some scholars quote this passage to "proof" Jesus incarnation. They reason the "glory" means "manifestation of God as a human".

Therefore they will interpret verses like:

So, whether you eat or drink, or whatever you do, do all to the glory of God. -- 1 Corinthians 10:31 (ESV)

That you should do everything for Jesus who according to them is the "glory of God".

However, if "glory of God" means "Jesus", then the definition should fit scriptures too, but it fails with verse like:

In the same way, let your light shine before others, so that they may see your good works and give glory to your Father who is in heaven. -- Matthew 5:16 (ESV)

When cannot give Jesus to our Father!

Furthermore, Jesus refers to God's glory as something other than himself:

The glory that you have given me I have given to them... -- John 17:22 (ESV)

And we know God have Jesus (John 3:16), yet Isaiah wrote:

I am the LORD; that is my name; my glory I give to no other... -- Isaiah 42:8 (ESV)

It is also very unlikely that the Jews who believed in a single God would have understood or meant it that way.

Jesus' knowledge as a child

Now his (Jesus) parents went to Jerusalem every year at the Feast of the Passover. And when he was twelve years old, they went up according to custom.

And when the feast was ended, as they were returning, the boy Jesus stayed behind in Jerusalem. His parents did not know it, but supposing him to be in the group they went a day's journey, but then they began to search for him among their relatives and acquaintances, and when they did not find him, they returned to Jerusalem, searching for him.

After three days they found him in the temple, sitting among the teachers, listening to them and asking them questions. And all who heard him were amazed at his understanding and his answers. And when his parents saw him, they were astonished.

And his mother said to him, “Son, why have you treated us so? Behold, your father and I have been searching for you in great distress.”
And he said to them, “Why were you looking for me? Did you not know that I must be in my Father's house?”

And they did not understand the saying that he spoke to them. And he went down with them and came to Nazareth and was submissive to them. And his mother treasured up all these things in her heart.

-- Luke 2:41-51 (ESV)

Some argue that this scripture proof that Jesus had divine knowledge from his pre-existence because the teachers were amazed at his answers.

Jesus was "listening and asking question to them", not the other way around. "Everyone who heard him was amazed at his understanding and answers [responses]" (Luke 2:47 NIV)

In our modern schools the teachers usually ask the children a question, and they need to provide an answer to proof that they did their homework. However, this case it was the other way around. Jesus was asking the teachers questions and was listening to their answers, then based on the teacher's answers, Jesus responded to their answers.

The period and verse separation that the translators added between verse 46 and 47 creates the impression that the teachers were only amazed at Jesus' "answers". Some translations starts verse 47 with "And" which means that the message is still part of the previous sentence which suppose that the teacher were amazed at Jesus questions too.

According to NAS Concordance, the Greek word "sunesis" often translated as "understanding" could also mean "cleverness" or "insight". Although not much detail was given, one could assume that by asking insightful questions and engaging in dialogue, Jesus could have challenged the existing interpretations and stimulated deeper reflection among the teachers.

If Jesus was truly already all knowing, then the next verse would not make sense:

And Jesus increased in wisdom and in stature and in favor with God and man. -- Luke 2:52 (ESV)

Jesus came from heaven

No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven — the Son of Man. -- John 3:13 (NIV)

Some use this scripture to proof that Jesus originated from heaven or to proof that Jesus is a reincarnation of God Who was in heaven, however to say that someone or something "come from heaven/God" is a Jewish idiom that means he or it is good, for example:

There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. -- John 1:6

and

But Jesus answered and said to them, “I also will ask you one thing, which if you tell Me, I likewise will tell you by what authority I do these things: The baptism of John — where was it from? From heaven or from men?”

And they reasoned among themselves, saying, “If we say, ‘From heaven,’ He will say to us, ‘Why then did you not believe him?’ But if we say, ‘From men,’ we fear the multitude, for all count John as a prophet.” -- Matthew 21:25

Nobody believed John was coming from heaven. The issue was that "from heaven" means "it is good" and therefore they were supposed to accept John's baptism and "from men" means "it is bad" which would have offended the people.

Another example:

Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shadow of turning. -- James 1:17 (NKJV)

and

"And try Me now in this," says the LORD of hosts, "If I will not open for you the windows of heaven and pour out for you such blessing that there will not be room enough to receive it." -- Malachi 3:10 (NKJV)

Nobody expected "good gifts" or "blessings" to literally fall out of the sky.

With this in context, John 3:31 also makes more sense if it is interpreted as an idiom:

He who comes from above is above all; he who is of the earth is earthly and speaks of the earth. He who comes from heaven is above all. -- John 3:31 (NKJV)

It should not be taken literally, then John would have meant that Jesus' disciples were also previously in heaven or some other place other than our world

As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. -- John 17:18 (NKJV)

Jesus came from God

For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved me, and have believed that *I came forth from God. I came forth from the Father and have come into the world.

His disciples said to Him, “See, now You are speaking plainly, and using no figure of speech! Now we are sure that you know all things, and have no need that anyone should question you. By this we believe that you came forth from God.”

-- John 16:27-30 (NKJV)

Jesus life or spirit came from the Father and that he would return again, just like we would too (Ecclesiastes 12:7).

John was referring back to chapter 1 of his book:

The only begotten son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared him. -- John 1:18 (NKJV)

This may also possibly explain why John wrote John 16:30 NKJV with the Greek word "exerchomai" translated as "came forth", which could also mean "to be declared" according to Thayer's Greek Lexicon.

Weather or not that was John's intention or all of us came forth from our fathers. In Jesus case:

Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After his mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Spirit. -- Matthew 1:18 (NKJV)

Jesus was God's only son

Nature shows that any being can only reproduce to the same kind (Genesis 1:11), not of a different type. For example a bitch cannot produce kittens. Therefore, some argue that if Jesus claim to be "the Son of God", he has to be divine like God the Father, especially when we find scriptures like:

... we have seen his glory, glory as of the only (begotten?) Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. -- John 1:14

No man has seen God at any time; the only (begotten?) Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared Him. -- John 1:18

For God so loved the world, that He gave his only (begotten?) Son... -- John 3:16

For God did not send His son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him. Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only (begotten?) Son of God.

In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent His only (begotton?) Son into the world, so that we might live through him. -- 1 John 4:9

All the verses above use the Greek word monogenés:

The HELPS Word-studies state:

monogenḗs is made from:

• misthōtós which means "one-and-only"
• génos which means "offspring"

Therefore, this is a very hotly debated word as it challenge many theological interpretations which lead translators to omit the word "begotten" from popular modern English translations like the CEV, GNT, NASB, NIV, NTL, ESV.

Some other translations include "begotten" is some of the verses listed above like the AMP, ASV, ERV, NASB1995, KJV, NKJV, REV, TS2009, YLT.

These verse are often crossed referenced to the prophecy of Psalm 2:8-12 which also stated the God will have a special "begotten" son.

If Jesus was God's only son

We have problem, because it contradicts many scriptures that state that God have many more sons and it does not fulfill the prophecy of Psalm 2:8-12.

Some explanations that monogenḗs is supposed to mean "one of a kind" or "the only of its kind". This leads to more problems:

• What kind was Jesus then?
• How does that glorify God?
• It still does not solve the problem that Jesus had a human mother if he was a different kind.

Other would argue that this means, Jesus was the only human into which God incarnated, but that is an assumption that is not very clearly supported by any of these scriptures.

If Jesus was the only human born son acceptable by God

"begotten son" simply means a "human born son". Would that not make any believer whom God accept as a "son" also a "begotten son (or daughter) of God"?

Yes it does:

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead. -- 1 Peter 1:3 (KJV)

The only unique thing about Jesus' birth from ours, is how did his mother got pregnant without a man's intercourse?

If Jesus is the only human born person, without a biological father (like Adam), it would mean that he would be sinless as there would be no bloodline from which he could inherit ancestral sin. This would make him totally acceptable to be God's son even from conception, hence the phrase "the only-begotten Son of God" which means "the only-human-born person, accepted as a Son of God" without the need of anyone's sacrifice.

This is significant, to highlight that Jesus was human-born, because that disqualifies any doctrines that teach that Jesus was some sort of angelic being of God like Gabriel.

Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way:

When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit.

And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly. But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.

When Matthew wrote "in this way" it means that is how Jesus was literally born or how he originated (because the Greek word "birth" is also "genesis" which could also mean "originate").

Luke provide a bit more detail:

In the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city of Galilee named Nazareth, to a virgin betrothed to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David. And the virgin's name was Mary.

And he came to her and said, “Greetings, O favored one, the Lord is with you!”
But she was greatly troubled at the saying, and tried to discern what sort of greeting this might be.
And the angel said to her, “Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God. And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus. He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. And the Lord God will give to him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and of his kingdom there will be no end.” And Mary said to the angel, “How will this be, since I am a virgin?”
And the angel answered her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy— the Son of God. And behold, your relative Elizabeth in her old age has also conceived a son, and this is the sixth month with her who was called barren. For nothing will be impossible with God.”
And Mary said, “Behold, I am the servant of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word.”

And the angel departed from her.

-- Luke 1:26-38 (ESV)

That fact that Gabriel names "David" as one of Jesus' ancestors also means that Mary was not a surrogate mother to a God-sperm, but that Mary was indeed Jesus' natural biological mother.

The almighty Creator, could have literally created, whatever Mary needed to become pregnant (like DNA), directly in Mary just like He created Adam:

The LORD God formed the man of dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living creature -- Genesis 2:7 (ESV)

Jesus said himself:

It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is no help at all -- John 6:63 (ESV)

and even Job acknowledge that life comes any ways from God's Spirit, because Job's mother was most likely not a virgin like Mary:

The Spirit of God has made me, and the breath of the Almighty gives me life. -- Job 33:4 (ESV)

If Jesus was God's biological son

God is Spirit (John 4:24) and not a human (Numbers 23:19) or part of His own creation (Isaiah 43:10). Therefore, God the Father cannot be Jesus' biological Father.

If "only begotten son" means God's only biological son, we also have to deal with a few problems:

• If you reason Jesus is God, then you need to explain how can God be His own biological son?
• If Jesus was born out of wedlock, it would make all Jesus statements about His Father questionable.

Sadly, some sects belief that God the Father had sexual intercourse with Mary which produced a demi-god-like Jesus, therefore it is understandable that translators choose to remove that word to avoid these kind of confusions.

However, Jesus explains:

I speak of what I have seen with my Father, and you do what you have heard from your father.”

They answered him, “Abraham is our father.”

Jesus said to them, “If you were Abraham's children, you would be doing the works Abraham did, but now you seek to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God. This is not what Abraham did. You are doing the works your father did.”

They said to him, “We were not born of sexual immorality. We have one Father — even God.”

Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I came from God and I am here. I came not of my own accord, but He sent me.

Why do you not understand what I say?

It is because you cannot bear to hear my word. You are of your father the devil, and your will is to do your father's desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks out of his own character, for he is a liar and the father of lies.

But because I tell the truth, you do not believe me.

Which one of you convicts me of sin? If I tell the truth, why do you not believe me?

Whoever is of God hears the words of God. The reason why you do not hear them is that you are not of God.”

-- John 8:42-47 (ESV)

Nobody argued that Jesus made a mistake to say that Jews were biological offspring of the devil. If that was the general understanding, then it would have been easy to proof Jesus wrong and to silence him for good, but instead, we read from the next verse (John 8:48) that they debated on a different subject.

From this we can assume that in this context a "father" is the person whose "words" and "works" his "children" copies by acting like their "father".

When Jesus said that "God is my Father", it means he copies God's true words and works and when he said that the Jews' Father is the devil it means they copied the devil's lies and works.

In other words, a father is the one whose image you reflect in your life. This could be either God's image or the devil's image. This is why it is significant that Jesus was considered "the image of God".

Jesus is the image of God

He is the image of the invisible God... -- Colossians 1:15 (ESV)

If one thing is "the image" of another thing, it means "the image" is not the original. In this case it proof Jesus is not God Himself.

However, some would argue that Jesus was God "body" (puppet or avatar) on earth.

Fortunately, Paul explains in another letter:

But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord. -- 2 Corinthians 3:18 (KJV)

This means we are too being changed into the image of God, without reincarnating into gods ourselves. Paul meant that we should represent God like Jesus did. For example:

For a man ought not to cover his head, since he is the image and glory of God. -- 1 Corinthians 11:7 (ESV)

The Book of Genesis explains that this is why God created humans:

So God created humankind in His own image. In the image of God he created him. -- Genesis 1:27 (ESV)

Therefore, being the "image of God", simply means that the "invisible God" choose to represent Himself to his creation through humans. That is why it is so important not to represent a distorted image of God, but to follow the example of Christ.

God dwells bodily in Jesus

For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily... -- Colossians 2:9 (ESV)

People often quote these verse to proof "the deity of Christ". This is an invented term that does not exist in the Bible. Paul did not write that Christ is the deity. He wrote that "the deity dwells" in Christ as he explained in the previous chapter:

For in him (Jesus) all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell... -- Colossians 1:19 (ESV)

To consider that "God is pleased to dwell in Himself" is a paradox and proofs that Jesus cannot be God. Some Trinitarians might argue, the spiritual Father dwells in the human Jesus. However, Paul wrote "God dwells", so if Jesus is part of the Godhead he has to dwell in himself.

If you continue reading Colossians 2...

For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily, and you have been filled in him, who is the head of all rule and authority. In him also you were circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ, having been buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through faith in the powerful working of God, Who raised him from the dead. -- Colossians 2:9-12 (ESV)

If the first part of the verse meant that Jesus is God, then it should also mean that a disciple is also Jesus or even a god, which is clearly not the case.

Paul also wrote:

In him you also are being built together into a dwelling place for God by the Spirit. -- Ephesians 2:22 (ESV)

and

For this reason I bow my knees before the Father, from Whom every family in heaven and on earth is named, that according to the riches of His glory He may grant you to be strengthened with power through His Spirit in your inner being, so that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith — that you, being rooted and grounded in love, may have strength to comprehend with all the saints what is the breadth and length and height and depth, and to know the love of Christ that surpasses knowledge, that you may be filled with all the fullness of God. -- Ephesians 3:14-19 (ESV)

That does not mean that we turn into gods. Paul meant that we may be filled with God's Spirit in our inner beings.

In the next chapter Paul wrote:

There is... one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all. -- Ephesians 4:6 (ESV)

"all" does not mean "Jesus only". If "all" also include His "sons" then it means God also dwells in his other sons without turning them into gods.

Paul claim this based on what Jesus said himself:

But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth. -- Acts 1:8 (ESV)

God appearing as Jesus

John 1:18

For the law was given through Moses, but
God’s unfailing love and faithfulness came through Jesus Christ. No one has ever seen God. But the unique One, who is himself God, is near to the Father’s heart. He has revealed God to us.

-- John 1:17-18 (NLT)

Some modern translations say that Jesus is God who reveal "unfailing love and faithfulness" where the "law" of Moses possibly failed, while other translations read:

For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
No man hath seen God at any time;
the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared Him.

-- John 1:17-18 (KJV)

In other words, some know about God only by the law (teachings) of Moses. By those teachings alone, "No man hath seen God". However, by "grace and truth" which come by Jesus Christ (His son), who "declare" who the Father is, the disciples got to know God.

Titus 2:13

For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men, teaching us that, denying ungodliness and wordly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly in the present age, looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ, who gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from every lawless deed and purify for Himself His own special people, zealous for good works, zealous for good works. -- Titus 2:11-14 (NKJV)

Out of context it seems like Paul is saying "our great God who is also our Saviour Jesus Christ", but the scripture was influenced by the translator's interpretation. The direct Interlinear translation from BibleHub is:

... awaiting the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of the great God and Saviour of us, Christ Jesus...

Other scholars translate the same scripture as such:

For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people, training us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright, and godly lives in the present age, waiting for our blessed hope the appearing of the glory of our great God and (or namely)

Savior Jesus Christ who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness

and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession who are zealous for good works. -- Titus 2:11-14 (ESV)

This version could be interpreted that Jesus Christ is God's glory and not that Jesus is God Himself.

If Paul intended to lead Titus to belief Jesus is God, he would have said so in the opening of his letter to Titus, but instead he writes:

Paul,

• a bondservant of God and
• an apostle of Jesus Christ,

according to the faith of God’s elect and the acknowledgment of the truth which accords with godliness, in hope of eternal life which God, who cannot lie, promised before time began, but has in due time manifested His word through preaching, which was committed to me according to the commandment of God our Savior;

To Titus, a true son in our common faith:

Grace, mercy, and peace from

• God the Father and
• the Lord Jesus Christ our Savior.

-- Titus 1:1-4 (NKJV)

Paul clearly states that "God" and "Jesus Christ" is two different persons and that he has a different relationships with each one.

Jesus is God's flesh

Romans 9:5

Some scholars claim that Paul though that Jesus is God's flesh:

To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever. -- Romans 9:5

Direct translation from Greek to English:

whose the patriarchs and from whom is - Christ - according to the flesh - (being/exist) (over/to) (all/whole) God -- BibleHub

As seen, this verse could be interpreted in many different ways because the original text had no punctuation. For example one could understand the verse as: "Christ is God over all", but in the context of Ephesians 4:6 which was also written by Paul, he more likely meant: "Christ existed for the God of all", in other words, God is also Christ's God.

If one consider the opening of Romans, it is clear that Paul considered it foolish to think of God as a man:

Professing to be wise, they became fools, and changed the glory of the incorruptible God into an image made like corruptible man -- Romans 1:22-23 (NKJV)

Instead, Paul believed God is invisible:

For His invisible attributes, namely, his eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly perceived, ever since the creation of the world, in the things that have been made. -- Romans 1:20 (ESV)

Compare for example how Romans 9:5 is translated by different people:

1 Timothy 3:16

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:

God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

-- 1 Timothy 3:16 (KJV)

Unfortunately this is a bad translation.

These Greek texts were altered by scribes in favor of the Trinitarian position. The reading of the earliest and best manuscripts is not “God” but rather “he who.” Almost all the modern versions have the verse as “the mystery of godliness is great, which was manifest in the flesh,” or some close equivalent.

In regard to the above verse, Bruce Metzger writes:

[“He who”] is supported by the earliest and best uncials…no uncial (in the first hand) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports theos; all ancient versions presuppose hos or ho [“he who” or “he”]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century testifies to the reading theos. The reading theos arose either(a) accidentally, or (b) deliberately, either to supply a substantive for the following six verbs [the six verbs that follow in the verse], or, with less probability, to provide greater dogmatic precision [i.e., to produce a verse that more clearly supports the Trinitarian position].”

-- Spirit & Truth Fellowship International

For example the ESV renders:

Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness:

He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.

-- 1 Timothy 3:16 (ESV)

This changes the meaning to Jesus was a human "manifested in the flesh". In other words, God did not cheat. Jesus was like us.

Paul was addressing a "church". It would not have been a mystery who Jesus was. Paul more likely meant "the revelation" of Jesus.

"godliness" according to Strong's Concordance:

eusebeia: piety
Original Word     : εὐσέβεια, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech    : Noun, Feminine
Transliteration   : eusebeia
Phonetic Spelling : (yoo-seb'-i-ah)
Definition        : piety
Usage             : piety (towards God), godliness, devotion, godliness.

Why would God devote Himself to Himself?

1 John

That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life; (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;) -- 1 John 1:1-2 (KJV)

and

Hereby know ye the Spirit of God:

Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God;
And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

-- 1 John 4:2 (KJV)

The council of Nicaea determined that anyone who do not believe Jesus is God is a "heretic".. This scripture is often quoted to proof that you need to belief that Jesus was "God in the flesh" to be saved.

One of the false belief systems rivaling Christianity at the time 1 John was written was Gnosticism. The Gnostics believed that all matter is evil, and therefore they taught that Jesus Christ was not actually a human being of flesh and blood, but rather some kind of phantom or spirit being. Thus the Gnostics did not believe Jesus had come “in” the flesh.

By saying that Jesus had come “in” the flesh, the Bible is saying that Jesus was a flesh and blood human being. To not believe that Jesus was a human being is to be of the antichrist.

...

[1 John 4] Verse 2 is not saying that Jesus is God incarnate or God in human flesh. Rather, it is saying that those who acknowledge that Jesus Christ was born, grew up, carried out his ministry, and was a real human being, have the spirit of God within them. He came in the flesh indeed, just like every other flesh-and-blood human being.

-- Spirit & Truth Fellowship International

Often, the next few verses are ignored:

And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent (ordered) the Son to be the Saviour of the world.

Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God. And we have known and believed the love that God hath to us. God is love; and he that dwelleth in love dwelleth in God, and God in him.

--1 John 4:14-16 (KJV)

The true testimony was never that Jesus incarnated from a God into a human flesh, but instead that the Father ordered Jesus "to be the Saviour of the world". That is what we are supposed to confess.

The true test is to check who confess that:

• Jesus was indeed a true human (not a Gnostic spirit)
• Jesus is the son of God (not God Himself)